Logos Word of God – BT5
Graphe scripture as the logos “Word of God” never referred to New Testament writings
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The Greek word graphe refers to 1) in extra-biblical gramma letters or writings, anything written, 2) to all Jews including those of the New Testament, even today, graphe specifically refers to ONLY Old Testament gramma letters or writings translated in English ‘scripture,’ never to New Testament writings in these various ways as determined by singular and plural forms and their context:
a) in the singular it means either: a1) refers to a specific type (see below) of OT scripture like prophecy (a) which are “the God-breathed-kind of scripture [the kind that is] profitable for instruction” (b) that come from the “Oracles of God” used to catechize-convert (c) Jews to Christ (d) or the Law (e) or specific commandment of the Law (f), or a2) refers to a particular verse or section of scripture (g), even as if God was speaking as the scripture verse itself (h), or a3) refers to ALL of a type of scripture like the prophetic verses about the Messiah and His New Covenant (i). There are only 3 places in the NT that graphe scripture is used without the definite article (a) and in all 3 cases (j), the context makes it clear that the writer is thinking about a certain ‘portion of’ scripture, i.e., prophetic, and not ‘the whole/entirety of’ scripture. <Notes> a) 2 Peter 1:20, b) 2 Timothy 3:16 – this will be fully explained, c) katecheo: repetitive instruction of foundational truths: Luke 1:4; Galatians 6:6; 1 Corinthians 14:19; Acts 18:25, d) Hebrews 5:12, see b3., e) Galatians 3:22, f) James 2:8, g) Mark 12:10; Luke 4:21; John 7:38, 10:35, 19:37; Acts 1:16, 8:32; Romans 4:3, 9:17; 1 Peter 2:6, h) Romans 9:17; Galatians 3:8, 4:30, i) John 19:28 – see b3, j) 1 Peter 2:6; 2 Peter 1:20; 2 Timothy 3:16.
b) Or the Greek word graphe in the plural can means: b1) the OT viewed as a whole (see a1) or entirety, as with the bible-student Pharisees & scribes “who diligently-search the scriptures supposing they would take hold of zoe genuine-life everlasting” (a), but they “absolutely in fact neither eido mentally ‘see’ to perceive/know them nor the [associated] enabling-power of God (b), because “they testify of Me and yet you ongoingly refuse to come to Me for zoe genuine-life” (c), or b2) of the OT scriptures to various books or portions of it as specified, like just the Prophets (d), or b3) specifically the Messianic and New Covenant prophetic-rhema (e) or Jewish “Oracles of God” (f) from the Mosaic Law (g) and Prophets that Christ pleroo or telos fulfilled-to-completion (h) by which Jewish preachers used to convert other Jews (i), or b4) to several verses of scripture (j), or b5) OT verses that false teachers can twist and distort for their own purposes just as they do with Paul’s difficult-to-understand writings. The vocabulary, grammar, and context do NOT support the false teaching that Peter considered Paul’s writings to be equal with OT scripture, as I will detail later (k). <Notes> a) John 5:39, b) Matthew 22:29; Mark 12:24, c) John 5:40, d) Romans 1:2, 16:26 Matthew 26:56, e) very similar to Christian prophecy: 1 Peter 4:11, f) Hebrews 5:12; Romans 3:2 – see a1, g) Acts 7:3, h) Matthew 26:54; Mark 14:49; Luke 24:25-27, i) Acts 17:2, 11, 18:24, 28; 1 Corinthians 15:3-4, of which the book of Hebrews and Paul’s writings constantly cite from. See also a3, j) Matthew 21:42, k) 2 Peter 3:16.
Graphe NEVER referred to NT writings until the Catholic apologist Tertullian started defending Christianity against Praxeas and Marcion around 200 AD, desperately trying to give the loose, scattered, unorganized collection of NT writings the authoritative stature that the Jews had with the OT. To say Peter referred to Paul’s writings in 2 Peter 3:16 as “scripture” is the very “twisting and distorting” that Peter was warning of.
According to www.EarlyChristianWritings.com, there were 139 Christian writings circulating throughout the Church by 200 AD, and there was little agreement as to what was authoritative (a). In fact, the NT says: “The Law and the Prophets (b) were (past tense) UNTIL John, [but] SINCE then the ‘Great News’ gospel of the kingdom of God is ongoingly preached” (c). You see Jesus had already done this: “Beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, He interpreted to them (the disciples) in all the scriptures the things concerning Himself” (d), saying frequently: “For I tell you that this [prophecy of] scripture presently must be telos fulfilled-to-completion (e) in/be/with Me . . . For what is written about Me is presently having its telos fulfillment-to-completion (e)” (f), and on the way to His death: “See, we are going up to Jerusalem, and everything that is written about the Son of Man by the prophets will be telos fulfillment-to-completion (e)” (g), and again: “Everything written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms (b) must be pleroo fulfilled-to-completion (h)” (i), and finally from the cross Jesus said: “It is telio fulfilled-to-completion” (j), where “it” as the 3rd person-singular likely refers back the final events of “ALL things have been telios fulfilled-to-completion in order that the [singular] scripture (l) might be telios fulfilled-to-completion,” so much so that the “the curtain of the temple was torn in two, from top to bottom” (k), signifying the “katargeo end/abolishment/nullifying/making-ineffective of the OT Law” (m) that separated the common man from the presence of God in the “Holy of Holies,” which was behind that curtain! <Notes> a) For starters, read Wikipedia’s Development of the New Testament Canon, b) a common split of the OT scripture, c) Luke 16:16, d) Luke 24:27 – see b3 above, e) telos: accomplished, fulfilled, concluded, and completed, f) Luke 22:37, g) Luke 18:31, h) pleroo: filled to ‘to the brim’ with fullness, ‘breaking-the-net’ capacity, or completeness, i) Luke 22:44, j) John 19:30, k) Matthew 27:51; Mark 15:38; Luke 23:45, l) ALL prophecies about Christ, see a3 and b3 above, m) 2 Corinthians 3:7, 11.
The “Law and Prophets” scriptures only “prophesied heios UNTIL John” (a) or “[were] mechri UNTIL John” (b) because they were pleroo and teros “filled to completion, concluded, and finished.” Heios “marks a limit of an action or effect, because of its termination in time.” Mechri does the same “as far as in time, place, measure, or degree until terminated.” All the words thus speak of “definite completion or termination” The last book of scripture was completed 400 years before John the Baptist, but Matthew and Luke were saying these prophetic scriptures were still “active UNTIL” John the Baptist. Indeed, John was the last OT prophet, Elijah who was to come, in order to “prepare the way” for the Lord (c). That clearly implied that once the Messiah came, ALL the OT scripture regarding the Messiah’s mission was no longer “active” <Notes> a) Matthew 11:13, b) Luke 16:16, c) Matthew 3:3, 11:14;17:10-13; Mark 1:3, 9:11-13; Luke 1:76, 3:4.
Yet, even as the Messianic prophetic scriptures were being “finished, terminated” or “nullifying and made of not effect” right in front of them, Jesus said this of the Jewish bible students of His day in John 5:39-40: “You diligently search the [whole of the – see b1 above] scriptures because you suppose that in/by/with them you will take hold of everlasting, zoe genuine-life; but it is they that bear witness about Me, yet you ongoing refuse to Come to Me that you may have [everlasting] zoe genuine-life.” They missed the point of the all the scriptures – to get them ready for Christ (see a3 and b3 above). You would think that Christians wouldn’t make the same mistake!
As Christian musician, why if every OT Jew, NT speaker and writer, and Jew since never refers to any gramma writings as graphe scripture except OT ones, are any of us saying otherwise? Are we really going to believe 1 Catholic theologian in 200 AD that started this notion that NT writings are “scripture” because he was desperate in his arguments against the Jews and heretics that we have authoritative writings, too? Shouldn’t also be careful to see how the early predominantly-Jewish Church before the destruction of the temple in 70 AD used only portion of the scriptures mainly for singing Psalms and converting Jews to Christ? And shouldn’t we see the universal break from the scripture that occurred after 70 AD in predominantly-Gentile churches? If Christ pleroo fulfilled-to-completion the Messianic prophesies and telos finished, terminated, and nullified the Law, then what’s really left in the OT that Christians should read and study it? 97.4% of the OT is Law-based – see Logos Word of God – BT5a, something we should have died to and been released from? Thus the reason that the early Church only sang Psalms according to Justin Martyr in 150 AD. If all the reading and study didn’t help the bible experts of the day “Come to Jesus for genuine-life,” why do you think it would act any differently now? Isn’t it a bit crazy to think you “can do the same things and expect different results?”
Thank You Jesus for completely-fulfilling all the prophecies about the Messiah to bring a New Covenant that is completely-different-in-kind and unprecedented, sharing nothing with the old covenant. Thank You that the Law or old covenant has vanished away, ended, was nullified and abolished by your perfect sacrifice and resurrection, and replaced by a fresh, unique, radically-different New Covenant. Thank You that the Law and Prophets were only UNTIL the preaching of the gospel! We no longer have to read and study logos messages of the bible, even prophetic ones that simply “testify about You.” NOW we can “Come to You” for zoe genuine-life everlasting directly NOW by the means of the Holy Spirit through repentance, confession, water-baptism, and a life of surrender. Praise Your Name that even little children or the other “least among us” can easily do this so that no partiality is shown, that in fact, “the secrets of the kingdom are un-hidden to such as these but kept hidden from the so-called wise and understanding ones!”